Physician Assistantship (Dental)
MDC Licensing Examination — Physician Assistantship (Dental)
Professional licensing examination for dental physician assistants, administered by the Medical and Dental Council of Ghana.
- Practice questions
- 202
- Flashcards
- 129
- Topics
- 15
- Mock exam
- 100 questions · 120 min · pass 50%
What the MDC Licensing Examination — Physician Assistantship (Dental) covers
Our questions are organised by subject and topic, following the exam syllabus.
Dental Physician Assistant Foundations
- Dental Assessment & Escalation 11 Qs · 7 cards
- Chairside Infection Prevention 12 Qs · 7 cards
- Patient & Medication Safety 29 Qs · 16 cards
- Dental Emergencies 10 Qs · 8 cards
Oral Biology & Anatomy
- Oral & Maxillofacial Anatomy 12 Qs · 8 cards
- Tooth Morphology & Notation 18 Qs · 10 cards
Preventive & Community Dentistry
- Cariology & Caries Prevention 12 Qs · 9 cards
- Community Oral Health 10 Qs · 7 cards
Periodontology & Oral Medicine
- Periodontology 12 Qs · 8 cards
- Oral Pathology & Oral Medicine 14 Qs · 8 cards
Restorative Dentistry
- Restorative Dentistry & Endodontics 14 Qs · 9 cards
Oral Surgery & Pain Control
- Exodontia & Oral Surgery 12 Qs · 8 cards
- Local Anaesthesia & Dental Pharmacology 12 Qs · 8 cards
Paediatric Dentistry & Orthodontics
- Paediatric Dentistry & Orthodontics 12 Qs · 8 cards
Paraclinical Sciences
- Medical Microbiology & Immunology 12 Qs · 8 cards
Sample Physician Assistantship (Dental) practice questions
Try these 12 questions from different topics. Open "Show answer" to check yourself and read the explanation.
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Question 1 · Dental Assessment & Escalation
A patient with facial swelling becomes unable to swallow saliva and develops noisy breathing. What is the priority?
- A.Continue routine scaling
- B.Take dental photographs before helping
- C.Ask the patient to return next week
- D.Activate emergency airway support and urgent referral
Show answer
Answer: D. Activate emergency airway support and urgent referral
Airway warning signs require immediate stabilization and escalation rather than routine dental treatment.
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Question 2 · Chairside Infection Prevention
A reusable mouth mirror contacts oral mucosa. How should it ordinarily be processed?
- A.Cleaned and heat sterilized when heat tolerant
- B.Wiped on a gown
- C.Stored unprocessed overnight
- D.Rinsed with water only
Show answer
Answer: A. Cleaned and heat sterilized when heat tolerant
Mouth mirrors are semicritical items; most are heat tolerant and should be heat sterilized.
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Question 3 · Patient & Medication Safety
Before giving local anaesthetic, which check is essential?
- A.Use the same dose for every patient
- B.Confirm the patient, planned procedure, relevant allergies, medicine and dose
- C.Ignore the medical history
- D.Ask another patient to identify the syringe
Show answer
Answer: B. Confirm the patient, planned procedure, relevant allergies, medicine and dose
Structured verification reduces wrong-patient, wrong-drug, allergy and dosing errors.
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Question 4 · Dental Emergencies
A crown fracture exposing the pulp in a young permanent tooth seen within hours is often managed by:
- A.Extraction of the tooth in every case, as the pulp will always die
- B.Ignoring it until symptoms appear
- C.Root canal treatment of the neighbouring teeth
- D.Partial pulpotomy or pulp capping to preserve the vital pulp
Show answer
Answer: D. Partial pulpotomy or pulp capping to preserve the vital pulp
Immature teeth benefit from vital pulp therapy so root development continues.
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Question 5 · Oral & Maxillofacial Anatomy
The inferior alveolar nerve block anaesthetises the lower teeth on one side and also the:
- A.Whole tongue on both sides and the hard palate
- B.Upper molars on the same side
- C.Lower lip and chin on that side
- D.Skin of the cheek over the zygoma
Show answer
Answer: C. Lower lip and chin on that side
The mental branch supplies the lower lip and chin; the lingual nerve is often anaesthetised too (anterior two-thirds of the tongue).
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Question 6 · Tooth Morphology & Notation
In the FDI two-digit system, tooth 11 is the:
- A.Lower left permanent central incisor, closest to the midline of the mandible
- B.Upper left permanent lateral incisor
- C.Upper right permanent central incisor
- D.Upper right primary central incisor
Show answer
Answer: C. Upper right permanent central incisor
First digit = quadrant (1 upper right, 2 upper left, 3 lower left, 4 lower right); second = tooth from the midline.
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Question 7 · Cariology & Caries Prevention
The bacterium most associated with the initiation of dental caries is:
- A.Porphyromonas gingivalis, which lives in deep periodontal pockets
- B.Treponema pallidum
- C.Streptococcus mutans
- D.Candida albicans
Show answer
Answer: C. Streptococcus mutans
S. mutans ferments sugars to acid and adheres to teeth; lactobacilli contribute to progression.
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Question 8 · Community Oral Health
The DMFT index records:
- A.The number of dental surgeons per million people in the population
- B.Decayed, missing and filled permanent teeth per person
- C.Dental mobility and fracture of teeth
- D.Daily mouthwash frequency
Show answer
Answer: B. Decayed, missing and filled permanent teeth per person
Lower-case dmft is used for primary teeth; DMFT summarises caries experience.
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Question 9 · Periodontology
The main aetiological factor in gingivitis is:
- A.Vitamin C deficiency in the diet of most adults in West Africa
- B.Calculus alone
- C.Hormonal changes
- D.Dental plaque biofilm
Show answer
Answer: D. Dental plaque biofilm
Plaque causes inflammation; calculus is a retentive factor, and hormones modify the response.
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Question 10 · Oral Pathology & Oral Medicine
The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity is:
- A.Squamous cell carcinoma
- B.Adenocarcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands of the palate
- C.Malignant melanoma
- D.Osteosarcoma of the jaw
Show answer
Answer: A. Squamous cell carcinoma
High-risk sites include the lateral border of the tongue and the floor of the mouth.
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Question 11 · Restorative Dentistry & Endodontics
In G.V. Black's classification, a cavity on the proximal surface of a premolar is:
- A.Class I, because it involves the biting surface of a back tooth
- B.Class II
- C.Class III
- D.Class V
Show answer
Answer: B. Class II
Class III/IV are proximal anterior (IV includes the incisal edge); Class V is cervical.
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Question 12 · Exodontia & Oral Surgery
Dry socket (alveolar osteitis) typically presents:
- A.Within the first hour after extraction with heavy bleeding from the socket
- B.After 6 weeks with swelling of the neck
- C.2–4 days after extraction with severe pain and an empty socket
- D.Immediately as numbness of the lip
Show answer
Answer: C. 2–4 days after extraction with severe pain and an empty socket
Risk factors: smoking, lower molar extraction, traumatic surgery, oral contraceptives.
Sample flashcards
Quick facts to revise. Members can study every card with Learn, Test and Match modes.
- Bitewing
- Interproximal caries + crestal bone
- Dentist regulator (Ghana)
- Medical and Dental Council (Act 857)
- Narrow therapeutic index
- Digoxin, gentamicin, lithium, phenytoin, warfarin
- Pulp exposure in young tooth
- Vital pulp therapy (partial pulpotomy)
- IANB anaesthetises
- Lower teeth one side + lower lip/chin (± tongue via lingual nerve)
- FDI quadrants
- 1 UR, 2 UL, 3 LL, 4 LR (primary 5–8)
- Caries-initiating bacterium
- Streptococcus mutans
- DMFT
- Decayed, missing, filled permanent teeth
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